Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 00:08
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
How do I explain to my husband that my 19-year-old son has accidentally gotten me pregnant?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.